Wow. Check this. Why Didn't God forgive Satan for sinning

Discussion in 'The Sanctuary' started by TheBigPayback, Dec 15, 2011.

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  1. lyricalpriest

    lyricalpriest Rap Games Dawson Creek

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    I think satan attacked Eve b/c he knew that Adam would commit the sin subsequently b/c he felt a obligation to protect his wife.. think about it. men do a lot of stuff just to make their wife'z feel happy. or comfortable.

    but if it was adam that slipped first i doubt he would have brought it to eve out of shame and tryna get that "man complex" like I'll handle this by myself..
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  2. Coup d'état

    Coup d'état Don't believe the hype

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    LOL breath, why call me names ? Doesn't make sense.

    I was just speculating...
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  3. TheBigPayback

    TheBigPayback God Particle

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    He did a horrible job of being protector. Sounds more like he was pussy whipped
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  4. Nu'maaN

    Nu'maaN Anu'naki, Nuqqa.

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    hahahahahahahaha.

    no, that's not the reason at all.

    :numaan:
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  5. Coup d'état

    Coup d'état Don't believe the hype

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    What's the reason then ? You can explain and describe them well I'm sure, but why birthing pains after the fall of man ?
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  6. breathlesss

    breathlesss Registered Sex Offender

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    because there's a man (or woman...infant mind you) FALLING OUT OF HER FUCKING VAGINA

    dude, you ever have a poop that was a little too big?...
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  7. Nu'maaN

    Nu'maaN Anu'naki, Nuqqa.

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    let's not even get into the fact that they're removing a baby out of a womb.

    after the fall of man? it's a fucking natural thing to feel pain in labour.

    and let's not forget there was nobody before eve who got pregnant.

    so tell me, who ever gave birth without pain before eve did? yeah, okay.

    :numaan:
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  8. TheBigPayback

    TheBigPayback God Particle

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    Prior to her disobediance. No it was not supposed to be painful. However im not 100% sure they were flesh and blood until they ate of the tree (the point they died, spiritually)
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  9. RETSoldja

    RETSoldja Telling it like it is.

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    Payback, I've got a little take on this you might appreciate- Check out the Hebrew word for "evil," and its definition. Might give you a whole new perspective on this.
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  10. TheBigPayback

    TheBigPayback God Particle

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  11. snowy

    snowy 39k Rap Song Music Folder

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    The arrogance to presume you know the reasoning of a God's actions.

    Oh but it says in the Bible..... right...
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  12. RETSoldja

    RETSoldja Telling it like it is.

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    That arrogance, I've noticed, Snowy, has the potential to go both ways on each side of the same coin.
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  13. GaLaTeA

    GaLaTeA Well-Known Member

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    Since there are two sides of the coin, where does that de facto leave the truth to lay?
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  14. RETSoldja

    RETSoldja Telling it like it is.

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    Excellent question. Aside from the fact that I was using a rather old turn of phrase, I've noticed that truth in many cases is not the sole domain of any one viewpoint.

    Many cases, but not all. Christians and Atheists alike would do well to remember this, as would everyone in between.


    EDIT: Can't say I agree with you on Wayne, though. lol
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  15. breathlesss

    breathlesss Registered Sex Offender

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    I prefer to remain along the edge, and not just the edge, but, the edge of the edge...on one side of a single ridge...
    I do not exist on pennies and nickles
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  16. RETSoldja

    RETSoldja Telling it like it is.

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    Yes- Do you know what the literal translation of that word, and its root, is? Did you have that available?
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  17. eashaya

    eashaya seer

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    It is my understanding that the literal translation of the hebrew word 'ra' is something that is 'not good' or 'bad' as in something that is bad for us. Not exactly 'evil' as it is commonly defined.
    It is often misinterpreted when we automatically correlate the english translation of 'ra' as evil with sin. And it potentially changes the context and understanding of many passages.

    I may well be completely wrong, but this is my understanding.

    Would I be incorrectly presuming that this is a point of contention for you regarding your opinion of the KJV. If correct, even if not, would you mind elaborating on your predilection for other versions?
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  18. eashaya

    eashaya seer

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    Also, and I apologize if I am once again prematurely presumptive as I tend to scan posts rather quickly whilst I am working, are you asserting that Christianity (in the original and true sense) is derived of Catholicism?
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  19. TheBigPayback

    TheBigPayback God Particle

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    Im goin with that^
    Thats what im finding as well.
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  20. RETSoldja

    RETSoldja Telling it like it is.

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    You are correct. The basic interpretation would read that evil is literally a state of rebellion against God Himself, whereas sin is rebellion against His law only. Some may not see the difference, but the difference is there. In the former, one rebels against His very person, whereas in the latter, they rebel against His edict.

    So it is my opinion, and I do not suggest that this become anyone's dogma, that God would forgive Satan, if Satan would ever seek it. However, we know from Revelation that he will not.


    The issue of translation is actually a point of contention and concern for many versions, not only limited to the King James. However, the KJV has some grievous, and intentional, mistranslations, which puts it near the top of my list. Let me give you an example of another translation which is far more horrendous though: The Better Life Bible.
    The Better Life Bible is, perhaps, one of the absolute worst "translations" there is. It doesn't even rank up there with a paraphrase, in my opinion, because even a proper paraphrase attempts to keep things accurate. Here's a couple of examples, and emphasize the sections I find particularly troubling:

    Anyway, I think you see what I mean here. My point is simply that the KJV is not the only version I tend to have a problem with.


    My problems with the KJV, however, are numerous. Aside from the King's approval on every passage, there are three things I'll quickly touch on: His motivations, the source material, and the intentional mistranslations.

    James authorized the version at a time when he was attempting to make the Church of England a separate entity from Rome once more. He had been ordering Catholics to take a pledge which stated the Pope had no power over the king. Additionally, he was attempting to bring the Scots under the reestablishment of episcopacy. All of this could be significantly aided with an authorized translation of the Bible, so long as it was carefully edited. In other words, James was not at all interested in translating the Bible for the sake of bringing the Gospel to the people of England- He was interested in doing it solely to increase and fortify his own power.

    At the time the KJV was translated, the original Greek in which most of the NT is written in was a "dead language." Because of this, the translators relied heavily on other translations in the new Greek and Latin. The Latin Vulgate was one such document. The problem with this was that the Vulgate had undergone several revisions meant to emphasize certain doctrines within the Catholic church. Thus, we have a translation of a translation which was more of a paraphrase than a true translation.

    Finally, there are intentional mistranslations within the KJV. The most notorious is the one I will use as an example, and it is found in 1 Corinthians 13. The word "charity" is found within this chapter about nine times- But it does not appear in the original Greek text once. The word which does appear there is ἀγάπη, or agape, as the characters here have messed up. Agape literally means love. The phrase "feast of charity" illustrates love shown to others- Yet, at the time this was written, the word charity was understood to mean alms, or the giving of money. Alms were most often collected by the church.
    Another example that I will not get into is the use of the word "church" as the interpretation of ἐκκλησία, or ekklesia. That is not the correct translation- The correct translation is assembly. Today, however, because of the wide usage, the word "church" now is understood to refer either to a small body of believers, or the Body as a whole.


    Aside from the version itself, I have a problem with the stance of hardcore supporters of the KJV. These are the folks who declare that changing a "ye/thee/thou" to "you"; or a "thy/thine" to "your," will take away from the intended meaning. I say resolutely and adamantly that it does not: They mean the same thing when translating from Greek and Hebrew. Moreover, these do not appear as much more than tense in Hebrew, meaning they are added.
    Furthermore, another stance which these folks take is that the KJV is the ONLY true Bible- That all other variations are nothing or worse. This is a self defeating position, as the KJV would not exist without other translations and the original texts.
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